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  • 14-05-2017
  • Mathematics
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Trig. help. How does [tex]2sin (\frac{1}{2} x)cos( \frac{1}{2} x) = sinx[/tex] ?

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Sxerks Sxerks
  • 14-05-2017
Recall that 2sin(x) cos(x) is actually equal to sin(2x).

We can prove this by expanding sin(2x) to sin(x + x).
sin(x + x) = sin(x) cos(x) + cos(x) sin(x) = 2sinxcosx

Thus, 2sin(x/2)cos(x/2) can be rewritten in the form:
sin(2x/2), and this simplifies down to sinx.
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